This is the concluding section of "Three Crucial Questions
about Jesus" by Murray J. Harris, Baker Books, 1994,
ISBN 0-8010-4388-3, pages 98-103, which are very helpful to
understand the issue what do we mean when we say that
After laying out the Biblical evidence that clearly Jesus is
seen as God on pages 65-98 [there needs to be an incentive to
buy this great book], Prof. Harris sums his detailed exegesis up:
General Observations
This brings to an end our brief survey of these seven crucial
passages. Seen as a whole, they prompt some general
observations. First, the ascription of the title God to Jesus
is found in four New Testament writers - John (three uses), Paul
(two), Peter (one), and the author of Hebrews (one). Second,
this christologica] use of the title began immediately after the
resurrection in 30 (John 20:28), continued during the 50s (Rom.
9:5) and 60s (Titus 2:13; Heb. 1:8; 2 Pet. 1:1), and then into
the 90s (John 1:1, 18). Third the use of "God" in reference to
Jesus was not restricted to Christians who lived in one
geographical region or who had a particular theological outlook.
It occurs in literature that was written in Asia Minor (John,
Titus), Greece (Romans), and possibly Judea (Hebrews), and Rome
(2 Peter), and that was addressed to persons living in Asia
Minor (John, 2 Peter), Rome (Romans, Hebrews), and Crete
(Titus). Also, the use is found in a theological setting that
is Jewish Christian (John, Hebrews, Peter) or Gentile Christian
(Romans, Titus). Fourth, the three instances in John's Gospel
are strategically placed. This Fourth Gospel begins (1:1) as
it ends (20:28), and the Prologue to this Gospel begins (1:1)
as it ends (1:18), with an unambiguous assertion of the deity
of Christ: "The Word was God" (1:1); "the only Son, who is God"
(1:18); "my Lord and my God!" (20:28).[18] In his preincarnate
state (1:1), in his incarnate state (1:18), and in his
postresurrection state (20:28), Jesus is God. For John,
recognition of Christ's deity is the hallmark of the Christian.
But, you may ask, why are there so few examples of this usage in
the New Testament? If Jesus really is God, why is he not called
"God" more often? After all, there are over 1,300 uses of the
Greek word theos in the New Testament. Several reasons
may be given to explain this apparently strange usage.
First, in all strands of the New Testament the term theos
usually refers to the Father. We often find the expression
God the Father, which implies that God is the Father.[19]
Also, in trinitarian formulas "God" always denotes the Father,
never the Son or the Spirit. For example, 2 Corinthians 13:14
reads, "May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of
God, and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all."
What is more, in the salutations at the beginning of many New
Testament letters, "God" is distinguished from the Lord Jesus
Christ." So Paul's letters regularly begin, "Grace and peace to
you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ." As a result
of all this, in the New Testament the term theos in the
singular has become virtually a proper name, referring to the
trinitarian Father.[20] If Christ were everywhere called "God,"
so that in reference to him the term was not a title but a
proper noun, like "Jesus," linguistic ambiguity would be
everywhere present. What would we be able to make of a statement
such as "God was in God, reconciling the world to himself,"
or "the Father was in God, reconciling the world to himself"
(cf. 2 Cor. 5:19)?
Second, another reason why "God" regularly denotes the Father
and rarely the Son is that such usage is suited to protect the
personal distinction between Son and Father, which is preserved
everywhere in the New Testament. Nowhere is this distinction
more evident than where the Father is called "the God of our
Lord Jesus Christ" (Eph. 1:17) or "his God and Father" (Rev.
1:6), and where Jesus speaks of "my God."[21]
Closely related to this second reason is a third. The New
Testament clearly indicates that Jesus is subordinate to God.
Although they both possess the divine nature, there is an order
in their operation. It is the role of the Father to direct, of
the Son to obey. Theologians refer to a functional subordination
alongside an essential equality. Consequently, Christ can be
said to belong to God (1 Cor. 3:23) and to be subjected to God
(1 Cor. 15:28). So, then , by customarily reserving the term
theos for the Father, New Testament writers were
highlighting the Son's subordination to the Father, but not the
Father's subordination to the Son. We often find the expression
Son of God where God is the Father, but never Father
of God where God is the Son.
Fourth, if Jesus had been regularly called "God" by the early
Christians, problem would have been created for their
evangelistic efforts. Their Jewish friends would have been
convinced that Christians had given up monotheism, for there
were now two "Gods": Yahweh and Jesus. On the other hand,
their Gentile neighbors would have viewed Jesus as simply
another deity to be added to their roster of gods.
Finally, the New Testament authors generally reserve the term
theos for the Father in order to safeguard the real
humanity of Jesus. If "God" had become a personal name for
Christ, interchangeable with "Jesus," the humanity of Jesus
would tend to be eclipsed; he would seem to be an unreal
human being, a divine visitor merely masquerading as a man.
Conclusions
If, then, the word God does not become a personal name for Jesus
anywhere in the New Testament, what is the actual significance
of the seven uses? As used of Jesus, the term theos is a
generic title, a description that indicates the class or
category (genus) to which he belongs. Jesus is not only God in
revelation, the revealer of God (an official title) - he is God
in essence. Not only are the deeds and words of Jesus the
deeds and words of God - the nature of Jesus is the nature of
God. By nature, as well as by action, Jesus is God. Other New
Testament titles of Jesus such as "Son of God" or "Lord" or
"Alpha and Omega," imply the divinity of Jesus, but the title
God explicitly affirms his deity.
It may help to illustrate the distinction I am making between
a proper noun (in this case, a personal name), a generic title,
and an official title. Consider these two sentences: Winston
Chruchill was a Britisher and a prime minister of the United
Kingdom. John Kennedy was an American and a president of the
United Sates. In these sentences "Winston Churchill" and "John
Kennedy" are proper nouns (personal names); "Britisher" and
"American" are generic titles; "prime minister" and "president"
are official titles. The parallel sentence relevant to our
discussion would be "Jesus is God and the Revealer of God."
Can we, therefore, claim that the New Testament teaches that
Jesus is "God"? Yes indeed, provided we constantly bear in mind
several factors.
First, to say that "Jesus is God" is true to New Testament
thought, but it goes beyond actual New Testament diction. The
nearest comparable statements are "the Word was God" (John 1:1),
"the only Son, who is God" (John 1:18), and "the Messiah, who is
over all, God blessed forever" (Rom. 9:5). So we must remember
that the theological proposition "Jesus is God" is an inference
from the New Testament evidence - a necessary and true
inference, but nonetheless an inference.
Second, if we make the statement "Jesus is God" without
qualification, we are in danger of failing to do justice to
the whole truth about Jesus - that he was the incarnate Word,
a human being, and that in his present existence in heaven he
retains his humanity, although now it is in a glorified form.
Jesus is not simply "man" nor only "God," but the God-man.
Third, given English usage of the word God, the simple
affirmation "Jesus is God" may be easily misinterpreted. In
common English usage God is a proper name, identifying a
particular person, not a common noun designating a class.[2]
For us God is the God of the Judeao-Chrisitan monotheistsic
tradition, or God the Father of Jesus and of the Christan, or
the trinitarian Godhead. So when we make the equation in
English, "Jesus is God," we are in danger of suggesting that
these two terms, "Jesus" and "God," are interchangable, that
there is a numerical identity between the two. But while Jesus
is God, it is not true that God is Jesus.[*] There are others -
the Father and the Spirit - of whom the predicate God may be
rightfully used. Jesus is all that God is, without being all
there is of God. The person of Jesus does not exhaust the
category of deity. So then, when we say, "Jesus is God," we
must recognize that we are attaching a meaning to the term God -
namely, "God in essence" or "God by nature" - that is not its
predominant sense in English.
My analysis of the New Testament evidence for the deity of
Christ is now complete. The three branches of evidence we have
examined all point in the same direction. Whether we consider
the status Jesus enjoys, the functions he performs, or the
title he bears, there can be no doubt that the early Christians
believed in his full divinity as an essential ingredient of
their teaching. Consequently, any modern form of Christianity
that has surrendered a wholehearted belief in Jesus' deity has
drifted from its moorings and is at sea in a vessel that has
forfeited its rating as "Christian." On the other hand, when
we bow the knee before the risen Jesus and make the confession
of Thomas our own, we are securely moored to uniform Christian
tradition and, more importantly, to the divine Person who is
at the center of that tradition. Can you - will you - address
Jesus with the words "My Lord and my God"?